AAB Medical Technologist (MT) – Generalist Practice Exam

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• What reaction is indicated by symptoms such as fever, chills, and signs of hemoglobinuria?
• Which type of transfusion reaction occurs due to the destruction of incompatible red blood cells?
• What occurs to red blood cells during the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test?
• Which type of red blood cell is characterized by a target shape in a blood smear?
• Which condition is best described by high red blood cell count, high hematocrit, and high hemoglobin?
• Hepatitis A primarily infects which organ?
• Which antibody is the largest?
• Which two antibodies are known to contain J chains?
• What term applies to an elevated red cell count of 7.8 x 10^12/L?
• What is one potential effect of lysing red blood cells in a blood sample?
• What is the primary use of new methylene blue reagent in a laboratory setting?
• What is the normal number of white blood cells in blood?
• Which antibody is most effective for bacterial agglutination?
• What components make up a buffy coat?
• What is the function of regulatory T cells?
• A high platelet count is also referred to as?
• Which type of bond links the light chains and heavy chains of antibodies?
• Which Rh chromosome is considered the rarest?
• What causes the prozone reaction in immunological tests?
• Which marker is commonly used to monitor the treatment of ovarian cancer?
• What is a consequence of transfusing red blood cells with low 2,3 DPG levels?
• What are LAK cells used for in clinical settings?
• Which of the following describes the appearance of dacrocytes in a blood smear?
• Which polysaccharide component does the Cryptococcus antigen latex agglutination test detect in the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans?
• A blood analysis shows neutrophils with six-lobes nuclei. What condition does this likely indicate?
• What condition automatically disqualifies stored blood from transfusion?
• Which Rh antigen has the highest frequency in Caucasians?
• Which blood group systems' antibodies exhibit dosage effects?
• What is the Rh status of a person who possesses the D antigen?
• Which of the following parasites causes transfusion-associated infections?
• To test for the Bombay blood group, which antigen should the patient's red blood cells be mixed with?
• What is the main function of IgA antibodies?
• If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?
• Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?
• What do positive results on the direct antibody test indicate?
• The following test results are consistent with which health condition: WBC 5,200 cells per uL, Lymphocytes 16%, CD4 7%?
• What result should a lab technician report if a VDRL-test shows medium to large clumps under the microscope?
• What is the likely cause of a 2°C temperature rise during a blood transfusion with no abnormal findings?
• Which condition is most consistent with high iron levels, high ferritin, and normal total iron binding capacity?
• Which antibody serves as the main component of the secondary immune response?
• Of the Duffy antigen system, which antibody is known to potentially cause transfusion reactions?
• What does the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) test measure factors including?
• What principle is the Coulter principle based on in hematology?
• Which abnormal hemoglobin causes rigid red blood cells with short life spans?
• What does rouleaux formation on a blood smear indicate about the red blood cells?
• What is a common result of the anti-IgG test during the Coombs test?
• What key parameter is indicated by a higher reticulocyte percentage in a blood test?
• Which chemical can enhance the indirect antiglobulin test?
• What does an elevated transferrin saturation percentage indicate?
• What term is used for individuals whose cells express the D antigen?
• In which order are complement components activated in the classical complement pathway?
• How does anti-D immunoglobulin help in preventing Rhesus disease?
• Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:
• In which type of anemia are red blood cells smaller than normal and have decreased color?
• Folate deficiency is associated with which red blood cell morphology?
• Which enzyme is a known marker for acute lymphocytic leukemia?
• What is the term for an antibody's ability to block binding sites on bacteria and viruses?
• Which statement is true about the Westergren tube in comparison to the Wintrobe tube?
• Which pathogen must donated blood be tested for?
• Which antibody is known to cross the placenta?
• What is the least common type of white blood cell in the human body?
• Which type of immune cell is primarily involved in the allergic response?
• Which autoimmune disease is characterized by the presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies?
• What type of transfusion reaction is most likely to occur if the recipient's blood type is not matched with the donor's blood type?
• In a pedigree chart where two Type AB parents have four children, how many children would be expected to have type AB blood?
• Which condition is characterized by the presence of abnormal hemoglobin S?
• Which Kidd blood type phenotype is the most common?
• What do ELISA and Western Blot tests primarily detect?
• Which blood type is known as the universal donor?
• Anti-G is expected to react with red blood cells of which phenotypes?
• LAK cells are derived from lymphocytes incubated with which cytokine?
• What is the most common transfusion reaction that results in fever and chills?
• What is the minimum hematocrit level that men must have to donate blood?
• Which leukocytes are considered nongranular?
• Which blood type lacks both A and B antigens on red blood cells?
• Why is ammonium oxalate added to blood samples before performing platelet counts?
• In a blood donor tested with Rh antisera, a result of 0 for anti-D, 0 for anti-C, 0 for anti-E, and positive for anti-c and anti-e indicates what Rh genotype?
• What is the most common symptom of an allergic transfusion reaction?
• In a transfusion reaction presenting with tachycardia and difficulty breathing, what might be a key contributing factor?
• If a lab technician dilutes a blood sample with tryptan blue by 1:1 and counts 100 cells in 5 large squares, what is the resulting cell concentration?
• What type of blood concentrate carries the lowest risk of transmitting HIV and hepatitis?
• What is the most common blood type in the US?
• How many heme groups does a single hemoglobin molecule contain?
• Which Cytochemical stain is used in diagnosing hair cell leukemia?
• What is the correct antibody titer result indicated by the following results: 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128 with positive reactions?
• Which molecule binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 240 times that of oxygen?
• The term 'immunoglobulin' refers to what type of biological molecules?
• What term describes reactions that cause fever but are not serious?
• Based on the provided test results, what is the corrected reticulocyte percentage with an HCT of 30% and a normal HCT of 45%?
• What is the immune response against the body's own cells called?
• What type of blood cell would a high reticulocyte count typically indicate?
• What is the first component to be activated in the classical complement pathway?
• Which type of immunity do B cells and antibodies mediate?
• Which type of white blood cell is the largest?
• Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
• Which inherited condition is indicated by prolonged bleeding time and abnormal platelet adhesiveness?
• Red blood cells are resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria when they lack which specific antigen?
• What is the main function of C3b?
• uPA is a marker for which type of cancer?
• Which of the following is true about Jk(a-b-) phenotype?
• Which type of cell is primarily associated with Hairy cell leukemia?
• What transfusion reaction causes coughing, bronchospasms, and urticaria?
• Which medication is commonly used as an ACE inhibitor?
• What is the main antibody in mucus?
• Which cell type can differentiate into macrophages in tissue?
• Which two antibodies are primarily responsible for initiating the classical complement pathway?
• Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by minimal maturation of myeloid cells?
• At what temperature should cryoprecipitate be stored?
• What possible phenotypes can result from a man with genotype AO and a woman with genotype AB?
• Which of these anti-stephtolysin O (ASO) test results is normal?
• What type of substance makes pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis?
• A B cell deficiency would most likely lead to which condition?
• CD56 is most closely associated with which type of leukocyte?
• What blood type is characterized by the presence of only the A antigen?
• What kind of T cells have CD8+ co-receptors?
• What type of T cells are designated as CD4+ T cells?
• Which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically insignificant?
• Which condition is often indicated by eosinophilia?
• What is the formula to calculate the corrected white blood cell count?
• What could be inferred if a blood calibration shows a high level of ferritin along with elevated iron?
• How many globin groups does each hemoglobin molecule have?
• What is the term for a molecule that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a carrier?
• Which disorder is indicated by the following test results: PLT 35 X 10^9/L, HGB 72 g/L, INR 1.5, and D-Dimer 22 mg/L?
• Which cells, along with dendritic cells and macrophages, present antigens to T-helper cells?
• What type of immune response is primarily due to CD8+ T cells?
• What test would a doctor likely order next if a patient has inconclusive ELISA tests for Lyme disease?
• Which antibody do developing B cells produce first?
• A patient with microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells and basophilic stippling is most likely diagnosed with which condition?
• What is the commonly used blood type for making Coombs control cells?
• What is the most commonly used cryoprotective agent for red blood cells in blood banking?
• In which situation is IgE found in increased levels?
• Which of the following individuals is eligible to donate whole blood?
• A histologist has stained a blood sample but the basophils have poor definition. What action would improve the definition?
• Which antigen does the RAST test measure?
• An AB- patient needs a blood transfusion but AB- is unavailable. What is an acceptable alternative blood type for transfusion?
• Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into a patient?
• Landsteiner's rule is applicable to which blood group system?
• With MCV of 90 fL, MCH of 30.1 pg, and MCHC of 35.1 g/dL, what red blood cell morphology does the patient most likely have?
• What is a common symptom of transfusion-associated circulatory overload?
• Antibodies or ribonucleoprotein are indicative of which disease?
• Which blood type is most commonly used for intrauterine transfusions?
• What happens when a donor has received a tattoo within the past 12 months?
• What is the primary role of Coombs control cells in blood testing?
• Six hours after a blood transfusion, a patient experiences pain in multiple areas along with dark urine. What is the likely cause?
• Which of the following conditions can cause a "left shift" in a blood smear analysis?
• A patient with an Rh genotype of DCe/DCe is transfused with Dce/Dce blood. What alloantibody will the patient likely produce?
• What color is the anti-human globulin reagent?
• What is the formula to calculate MCH?
• Which antibody is primarily responsible for protecting against parasitic worms?
• Which type of hypersensitivity is also known as delayed-type and mainly involves T-cells?
• Which cells are responsible for producing histamine in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
• TRALI is a transfusion complication associated with fluid accumulation in which part of the body?
• Which red blood cell abnormality is associated with the Rh-null phenotype?
• Which FAB group of acute lymphoblastic leukemias has basophilic cells with prominent cytoplasmic vacuoles?
• Why do patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia receive plasma exchange therapy?
• A Rh-negative woman is pregnant with her second child. What test can be used to determine if this second child is at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
• How is the presence of anti-Jkb detected in a serum sample?
• In blood typing, what color may anti-A be dyed for quality control purposes?
• Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
• What color label is used for bags of AB blood?
• Which type of white blood cell is primarily responsible for the immune response?
• Chronic granulomatous disease primarily affects which type of cell?
• According to an antibody screen, which antibody most likely caused a positive result in the panel listing anti-E?
• What is the normal hematocrit value typically used for correction calculations?
• In a blood sample with lipemia, which spectroscopy absorbance reading is falsely increased?
• What is considered the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood type?
• In a platelet aggregation study, the absence of aggregation in response to ristocetin indicates which condition?
• Lysozymes play an important role in which type of immunity?
• Hemoglobin A2 is elevated in which disease?
• Auer rods are typically associated with which type of leukemia?
• A blood donor has the following Rh antisera results: anti-D 0, anti-C +, anti-E 0, anti-c +, anti-e +. What is the donor's Rh genotype?
• Cold agglutinins bind to which type of cell?
• What does Low ionic strength saline (LISS) reduce in order to act as a potentiator?
• Which transfusion-related condition is frequently associated with anti-K antibodies?
• The three types of granulocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and which other type?
• Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, lectin, and:
• What term is used to describe red blood cells that vary in size?
• What is the most common antibody detected in blood banking, aside from ABO and Rh antibodies?
• Which symptom is NOT typically associated with a febrile transfusion reaction?
• What is a common question asked in blood donor questionnaires?
• What is the minimum weight requirement for blood donors?
• Which test is used to detect antibodies attached to red blood cells?
• What is the term used for abnormal red blood cells with a burr shape?
• Which marker is essential for distinguishing acute lymphocytic leukemia from malignant lymphoma?
• What is the main antibody involved in the primary immune response?
• What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) calculated from a hematocrit (HCT) of 40% and a red blood cell (RBC) count of 5.0 x 10^12 /L?
• Which laboratory finding is often used to assess blood gas status?
• What is the main purpose of washing red blood cells in immunohematological tests?
• Which blood component is known to carry the highest risk for bacterial contamination?
• Which antibody plays a significant role in the secondary immune response?
• During hemostasis, what type of clot is primarily formed?
• Which red blood cell index measures the average amount of hemoglobin in the red blood cells?
• The HCV antibody test is used to screen patients for which disease?
• What are the Pappenheimer bodies found in red blood cells indicative of?
• To be eligible to donate blood, women must have a minimum hemoglobin level of:
• What is the formula used to calculate cell concentration from a blood sample?
• Cole agglutinins are directed against which antigen?
• At what temperature should fresh frozen plasma be stored?
• What is the importance of calculating the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) in a blood test?
• What is the average lifespan of a red blood cell?
• What serological reaction would result from the presence of Anti-B antibodies in a blood sample?
• In blood transfusion practices, which aspect is critical for patient safety?
• Which of these is a primary lymphoid organ?
• HIV self-tests are categorized as what type of test?
• What percentage of Caucasians is positive for the c antigen?
• Syphilitic infection elicits which two types of antibody response?
• Which antibody from the Kidd antigen system is associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• Which of the following blood group antibodies is most likely to cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
• What is the primary indicator for performing a direct antiglobulin test?
• Which antigen system's antibodies do not cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
• What type of immunity occurs when a person is exposed to live pathogens, develops the disease, and then develops immunity?
• What is the primary role of opsonins in the immune response?
• Which blood type possesses both A and B antigens?
• In which condition would you expect to see microcytic red blood cells on a peripheral blood smear?
• In the ABO blood group system, which antigen is present in blood type B?
• A patient's ABO testing results show a red cell grouping of 4+ for Anti-A and 1+ for Anti-B. What is the likely cause of these results?
• Consumption of raw shellfish can lead to which type of hepatitis?
• Target cells are also referred to as what?
• A patient's blood sample tests negative on a direct antiglobulin test. After adding Coombs control cells and observing no agglutination, what should be concluded?
• Megakaryocytes are responsible for producing which of the following?
• What is the formula to calculate the reticulocyte production index?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of T-helper cells?
• How many heavy chains make up the Fe region of the antibody molecule?
• Which virus is responsible for causing chickenpox?
• In which scenario would a mother likely require Rh immunoglobulin?
• What type of test is most likely used to evaluate a patient's bleeding time?
• What color label is designated for bags of B blood?
• What is the normal range for absolute lymphocyte count based on a WBC count of 2.5X10^9 cells/L with % lymphocytes at 30%?
• What is the normal hemoglobin range for women?
• What X-linked recessive disease is characterized by the absence of mature B cells?
• When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?
• Which result indicates anemia in a male patient?
• Which white blood cell is primarily responsible for the nonspecific killing of tumor cells?
• In blood transfusions, what kind of red cells are given to patients who have severe allergy to standard red cells?
• Which antibody is abnormal in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?
• Which blood type is characterized by the absence of any Rh antigens?
• A lab technician is running controls for a complement fixation test. To check for the absence of anti-complementary activity of the antigen, the technician should perform the test:
• What is the correct order of antibody classes from most common to least common?
• Which of these anemias is hypochromic and microcytic?
• The direct antiglobulin test will be positive in which of these conditions?
• What clinical sign is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
• Which color label is assigned to bags of 0 blood?
• In a pedigree chart, if a type AB father and a type O mother have four children, how many of them can be expected to have type A blood?
• What color of label is used for negative blood types?
• Which type of immunity develops when the body is exposed to disease or vaccines?
• Which test is used to detect weak -D antigens?
• Which cytokine is known for enhancing the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells?
• Which type of white blood cell is characterized by granules that stain orange?
• What test result is typically normal in patients with Von Willebrand disease?
• Which of the following best describes active immunity?
• What does the term "left shift" indicate in a complete blood count (CBC)?
• Coombs control cells are red blood cells coated with which antibody?
• What is a potential consequence of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• Which immune component is the first responder if skin is cut with glass contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus?
• What is the term for an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response?
• What does the international normalized ratio (INR) assess?
• A falsely high hematocrit would cause which red blood index to be falsely low?
• In paternity testing, which combination of blood types can lead to direct exclusion?
• What is the primary function of platelets?
• CD2 is a cell adhesion molecule found mainly on the surface of T cells and which other type of cell?
• What ABO subtype is indicated by the following testing results: 4+ Anti-A, 0 Anti-B, 0 Anti-A1, 2+ A1 cells, and 4+ B cells?
• Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the presence of what?
• What is the name of the protein released by natural killer cells that lyses pathogenic cells?
• How do you calculate the absolute lymphocyte count from the given data?
• What is the primary safety consideration regarding blood donation?
• In which test for syphilis is antigen mixed with serum on a plastic-coated card?
• Which blood type is considered a universal donor?
• Hemolytic anemia is best described morphologically as which type of cells?
• What is the purpose of conducting an indirect antiglobulin test?
• Negative selection and positive selection of T cells occur in which part of the body?
• Which type of antibody causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?
• Which plasma protein is the most abundant in the human body?
• Which type of immunity develops following exposure to an antigen?
• Which transfusion reaction typically has no symptoms and rarely requires treatment?
• Which allergy test measures levels of antibodies after exposing a blood smear to suspected allergens?
• What is the primary effect of the Jk (a-b-) phenotype on kidney function?
• What role does IgD primarily serve in the immune system?
• Given a blood type testing result of 0 for Anti-A, 4+ for Anti-B, and 0 for Anti-D, what is the patient's blood group?
• Based on serum test results showing low serum iron concentration and high total iron-binding capacity, what type of anemia does the patient most likely have?
• What condition can be diagnosed using a direct antiglobulin test?
• How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule bind?
• Which abnormal form of hemoglobin has iron in the Fe^3+ state instead of the Fe^2+ state?
• What abnormal form of hemoglobin is responsible for sickle cell anemia?
• Given a scenario where a patient's serum agglutinates with group A antigens but not with group B, what blood type does the patient have?
• The presence of autoantibodies to double-stranded DNA is associated with which autoimmune disease?
• Which immunity is mediated by secreted antibodies, complement proteins, and antimicrobial peptides in body fluids?
• Which condition is characterized by a reduced platelet count?
• In which type of immune response do mast cells primarily participate?
• What volume is used in the calculation for corrected reticulocyte count with an Hct of 8% and a normal Hct of 40% with a reticulocyte count of 5%?
• Most antibodies produced against Rh antigens are of which immunoglobulin class?
• Which antibody causes allergies?
• Lewis antibodies are most commonly which class of antibodies?
• A decrease in platelet count is known as what?
• In which type of leukemia are Philadelphia chromosome-positive bone marrow cells most commonly found?
• Which type of anemia is characterized by a hemoglobin level of 7.9 g/dL and a platelet count of 23,100/mm3?
• What type of immunity is enhanced through the action of T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells?
• Natural active immunity occurs when exposure to a live pathogen leads to what?
• What does the term "phenotype" refer to in blood typing?
• Which antibody from the MNS antigen system can cause severe transfusion reactions?
• What does a diagnosis of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction primarily indicate?
• Which class of antibody is characterized by having "y" chains?
• What is a recommended deferral period for individuals who have taken aspirin before donating platelets?
• The class of an antibody is determined by which part of the antibody?
• What percentage of the U.S. population is identified as Rh-negative?
• What lab results would correlate with sickle cell anemia?
• In neonates with low hemoglobin levels, which condition is indicated by a blood smear showing sickle-shaped cells?
• What indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test?
• Which role does the cough reflex play in immunity?
• Bence Jones proteins are composed of what type of immunological component?
• What would be the expected hematocrit value in untreated pernicious anemia?
• Antigen-presenting cells primarily activate which type of immune cell?
• Which of the following is classified as a treponemal test for syphilis?
• What is the normal adult range for platelet count?
• What type of immunity is described as the body's first line of defense against invading pathogens?
• What is the term for a leukocyte count of 3.6 x 10^9/L?
• Which laboratory technique detects the number of cells in a sample based on electrical impedance?
• Which anticoagulant is commonly used for red blood cell counts?
• The term used to describe a decrease in the number of white blood cells is?
• What hematocrit value would suggest possible anemia if it is significantly lower than normal?
• Which blood transfusion issue is associated with the development of antibodies against donor lymphocytes?
• How many grams of hemoglobin are typically found in blood per 100 mL?
• An Rh-negative woman gives birth to her first child, the Rh-positive boy. Within how many hours after giving birth should the mother receive anti D immunoglobulin?
• Which class of antibodies primarily crosses the placenta?
• Which white blood cell is the most abundant in normal human blood?
• Which of these tests is specifically used to detect heterophile antibodies?
• Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with what solution?
• When blood is transfused, what is the most critical consideration to check?
• Which of the following blood types is considered to be a universal donor?
• Irradiated blood components are used to prevent:
• A patient's hematology results indicate an RBC count of 4.68 X 10^12/L, a Hemoglobin of 1.33 g/L and a Hematocrit of 0.451. What is the patient's mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)?
• Which process involves coating pathogens with antibodies to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis?
• Given the following results - RBC 4X10^6/uL, HCT 40%, Hgb 12 g/dL, what is the morphology of the red blood cells?
• Which of the following antibodies is considered clinically insignificant?
• Which enzyme, found in bodily secretions such as tears and saliva, functions as an antimicrobial agent by cleaving the peptidoglycan component of bacterial cell walls?
• Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
• What laboratory parameter would best indicate a potential infection in a patient?
• What is the major form of hemoglobin in adults?
• A 12-year-old patient with liver cirrhosis shows which type of abnormal red blood cells in a peripheral blood smear?
• What is the formula for calculating the International Normalized Ratio (INR)?
• What is the significance of measuring hematocrit in clinical practice?
• At what temperature is the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test conducted?
• What type of thalassemia is referred to as Cooley's anemia?
• A patient has hemophilia A and needs injections of factor VIII. However, the patient's body has developed inhibitors to human factor VIII. Which form of factor VIII could be given to this patient instead?
• Vaccination is an example of which type of acquired immunity?
• When might a patient need an apheresis donation?
• When conducting a daily positive control for Coombs' control cells, what does a 4+ agglutination result indicate?
• How do you calculate the corrected WBC count given an uncorrected WBC count of 30,000/uL and 100 nucleated RBC in 100 WBC?
• What is the first step in making monoclonal antibodies artificially from mice?
• T cells exert their actions primarily by secreting what type of proteins?
• The hemoglobin solubility test is a screening test for which disorder?
• What is the significance of memory cells in the immune system?
• What type of cells are hybridoma cells the fusion of?
• What type of immunity is characterized by the presence of memory cells?
• What is the most common type of anemia?
• Which test is specifically used to detect viral RNA?
• Which transfusion reaction is classified as a delayed reaction?
• What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?
• From a hemocytometer count, if a technician makes a 1:4 dilution and counts 100 WBCs in 10 squares, what is the WBC concentration?
• A patient has a prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds and an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 25 seconds. What condition does this indicate?
• Which medication is known to cause a false positive result on the direct antiglobulin test?
• What is the most common Rh phenotype found in African Americans?
• What are the three class I gene products?
• How is the international normalized ratio (INR) calculated given a Control PT of 11.0 seconds and a Patient's PT of 16.5 seconds?
• What is indicated by a positive direct antiglobulin test?
• What is the most probable Rh genotype of a blood donor tested with positive results for anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, and anti-e?
• Which is the most severe type of thalassemia?
• Which ion is necessary for the blood clotting process?
• If a patient has the Rh genotype R1R1, what is their genotype using the Fish-Race nomenclature?
• Which disease would typically show a normal partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?
• According to AABB guidelines, how long can thawed fresh frozen plasma be refrigerated before discard?
• Which factor deficiency correlates with a PT of 22 seconds, aPTT of 79 seconds, and a fibrinogen level of 0.5 g/L?
• What is the formula to calculate the corrected reticulocyte percentage?
• By what percentage does one unit of whole blood raise the hematocrit of a standard adult patient?
• What is considered the most serious transfusion reaction?
• What type of anemia results from a deficiency in vitamin B12?
• Which statement about platelet donor deferral is true?
• Which component forms the recognition unit of the classical complement pathway?
• Which type of immune response does not involve the production of antibodies?
• What color label represents bags of A blood?
• In the context of blood transfusion, what does "crossmatching" refer to?
• The cancer antigen 27-29 test is used to monitor which type of cancer?
• For kidney transplants, matching of which three HLA molecules is most important?
• When calculating the corrected reticulocyte count, what do you multiply by the reticulocyte count?
• On a precipitation curve, where does maximal precipitation occur?
• What is the primary characteristic of innate immunity?
• What indicates a positive result in a complement fixation test?
• Which antibody is primarily responsible for detecting foreign antigens in the respiratory tract?
• Each hemoglobin molecule contains how many iron atoms?
• What could a profile of elevated lymphocytes indicate in a patient?
• Which test is primarily used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?
• Which antigen system does the U antigen belong to?
• How many different ABO blood types exist among humans?
• What is an apheresis donation?
• Which factor initiates the coagulation cascade via the extrinsic pathway?
• What protein breaks down to form D-dimer during clot dissolution?
• Which transfusion reaction is characterized by acute respiratory distress and tachycardia?
• Which of the following antibodies can activate complement?
• Which protein is known for its ability to bind free hemoglobin in the bloodstream?
• What type of antibodies are indicative of immune complex diseases?
• A patient shows fever, nausea, hypotension, and shock after receiving blood from an O- donor. What transfusion reaction are they most likely experiencing?
• How do you calculate the reticulocyte production index given the following data: Hct 15%, Normal Hct 45%, Maturation correction 2.5, Reticulocyte percentage 9%?
• For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?
• Why is incubation omitted in the direct antiglobulin test?
• What does hematocrit measure in a blood sample?
• What is the main type of hemoglobin in fetus and newborn babies?
• Whole blood is typically stored between which temperatures?
• What is the formula used to calculate mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?
• Why is serum heated at 56°C for 30 minutes before VDRL testing?
• If a woman's antibody screen is positive before a transfusion, which antibody is likely responsible for the positive result based on the panel provided?
• A peripheral pattern on the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test suggests which autoimmune disease?
• Hemoglobin A is composed of how many alpha chains and beta chains?